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Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Pre 8th December 2018 : Slot 1

Question Asked in IBPS Clerk 2018 : Memory Based Question Asked in IBPS Clerk 2018. Questions asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims. IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam Analysis. Number Series Questions Asked In IBPS Clerk Prelims, Quadratic Equation Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims, English Question Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims, Puzzles & Seating Arrangement Asked in IBPS Junior Associate Phase 1, Reasoning Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims, Data Analysis and Interpretation Questions Asked IBPS Clerk Prelims, Reading Comprehension Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk, Number Series Asked in IBPS Clerk, Inequality Question Asked In IBPS Clerk Prelims.

Dear Readers, IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018 was completed successfully, here we have given the full set of questions asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam which was held on 8th December 2018 Shift 1. Questions that comes in IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018 will help the candidates that are having exam in upcoming Shifts of IBPS Clerk Pre Exam. Below we have Provided all Section wise Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Exam First Slot 2018.

IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam Analysis 8th December 2018-Shift 1 > Click here

Question Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018 :  Quantitative Aptitude / Maths (8th Dec 2018 – Shift 1)

  • Number Series Questions Asked In IBPS Clerk Prelims Shift 1 (8th December 2018)
Number Series Question in Slot-1:

1). 9    45   180   540    1080    ?

Logic is *5, *4, *3, *2, *1.

9 * 5 = 45

45 * 4 = 180

180 * 3 = 540

540 * 2 = 1080

1080 * 1 = 1080

 2). 50    54    45    61    36    ?

Logic is +22,   -32,  + 42,  -52,   +62

50 + 22 = 54

54 – 32 = 45

45 + 42 = 61

61 – 52 = 36

36 + 62 = 72

3). 1    6     25    76      153    ?

Logic is *5+1,   *4+1,   *3+1 …….

1*5 + 1 = 6

6*4+1 = 25

25*3+1 = 76

76*2+1 = 153

153*1+1 = 154

4). 200   193   179   158   ?    95

Logic is   -7,   -7*2,   -7*3,    -7*4…..

200 – 7 = 193

193 – 14 = 179

179 – 21 – 158

158 – 28 = 130

130 – 35 = 95

5).  3    43    81    115    143   ?

Logic is Difference of difference 2,   4,   6,   8

  • Quadratic Equation Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims Shift 1 (8th December 2018)

Directions (61-65): In the following questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer as,.

 61)

  1. I) 6x2-13x-19=0
  2. II) 14y2+27y+9=0
  3. a) If x > y
  4. b) If x ≥ y
  5. c) If x < y
  6. d) If x ≤ y
  7. e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established.

 

62)

  1. I) 2x2+9x+10=0
  2. II) 2y2-7y-22=0
  3. a) If x > y
  4. b) If x ≥ y
  5. c) If x < y
  6. d) If x ≤ y
  7. e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established.

 63)

  1. I) 16x2-81=0
  2. II) 64y2-100=0
  3. a) If x > y
  4. b) If x ≥ y
  5. c) If x < y
  6. d) If x ≤ y
  7. e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established.

 64)

  1. I) x2-28x+187=0
  2. II) y2+7y+12=0
  3. a) If x > y
  4. b) If x ≥ y
  5. c) If x < y
  6. d) If x ≤ y
  7. e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established.

 

 65)

  1. I) 5x2-37x+32=0
  2. II) 5y2+12y+4=0
  3. a) If x > y
  4. b) If x ≥ y
  5. c) If x < y
  6. d) If x ≤ y
  7. e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established.
  • Simplification Questions

Directions (36-45): What value should come in the place of question mark in the given questions?

 36) 3(2/5) of 5(5/17) + 5(4/13) * 2(6/23)=?

  1. a) 32
  2. b) 35
  3. c) 20
  4. d) 25
  5. e) None of these

37) √(81% of 400/3 + 78% of 300/2) =?

  1. a) 20
  2. b) 10
  3. c) 12
  4. d) 15
  5. e) None of these

38) ?% of 300 + 45% of 440= ?/7 of 63 – 3/17 of 578

  1. a) 50
  2. b) 40
  3. c) 45
  4. d) 80
  5. e) None of these

39) √2401 + √1024 =?2

  1. a) 9
  2. b) 7
  3. c) 15
  4. d) 81
  5. e) None of these

40) 37750/50 + 41455/5 + 27540/20 =?

  1. a) 10250
  2. b) 10550
  3. c) 10423
  4. d) 9923
  5. e) None of these

41) 63% of 210 + 47% of 310 – 30% of 175 =?

  1. a) 250
  2. b) 220
  3. c) 225.5
  4. d) 242.5
  5. e) None of these

42) ? of 3/7 – 42% of 250 = 315

  1. a) 750
  2. b) 980
  3. c) 1050
  4. d) 500
  5. e) None of these

43) 7/17 of 102/133 of 304 =?

  1. a) 65
  2. b) 96
  3. c) 85
  4. d) 125
  5. e) None of these

44) 341.46 + 273.43 + 583.11 – 881 =?

  1. a) 325
  2. b) 317
  3. c) 295
  4. d) 525
  5. e) None of these

45) √? – 423 /9 * 13 + 11% of 5000 = 1/3 of 57

  1. a) 6400
  2. b) 80
  3. c) 4900
  4. d) 75
  5. e) None of these

1) ?2 + (92 + 34) ÷ 5 = 39

2) 6 × 16 × 5 ÷ 3 – ?2 = 96

3) √(124 + ? + 169) = 18

4) 282 – ?3 = 73 + 225

5) 298 – 132 – 23 = ? × 11

  • Arithmetic Questions:

    1. A sum becomes 5 times itself on simple interest in 5 years. What is the rate of interest?
    2. The ratio of efficiencies of A and B is 2:3 and that of B and C is 1:2. A and B can finish a work in 7.5 days. How long would B & C take to finish the send?

46) Rs.25500 is divided among A, B and C. A gets Rs. 4000 more than B and C gets Rs. 8000 more than B. Find the ratio of amount received by A, B and C?

  1. a) 13: 7: 21
  2. b) 11: 15: 17
  3. c) 17: 9: 25
  4. d) 22: 17: 13
  5. e) None of these

47) A can do a piece of work in 20 days. B takes 6 days more than the twice the number of days taken by A and B working together. Find the number of days taken by B to work alone?

  1. a) 24 days
  2. b) 30 days
  3. c) 16 days
  4. d) 10 days
  5. e) None of these

48) A started a business with a capital of Rs.10000. After 3 months, B joined with x% of A’s capital. At the end of the year, B received share of Rs.9000 out of the total profit Rs.25000. Find the value of x

  1. a) 60%
  2. b) 75%
  3. c) 40%
  4. d) 80%
  5. e) 72%

49) The distance between station A and B is 180 km. Train X starts from A and travels towards B with the speed of 40 km/hr and train Y starts from B and travels towards A with the speed of 50 km/hr. Find the distance travelled by train X after they crosses each other?

  1. a) 100 km
  2. b) 80 km
  3. c) 120 km
  4. d) 90 km
  5. e) None of these

50) A man can row 120 km along the stream and against the stream in 9 hours. Time taken to travel 40 km downstream is equal to the 20 km upstream. Find the speed of the boat

  1. a) 30 km/hr
  2. b) 20 km/hr
  3. c) 15 km/hr
  4. d) 24 km/hr
  5. e) None of these

51) If the difference between Simple interest and Compound interest at the same rate of interest on Rs.20000 in two years is 450, then what is the rate of interest?
a) 17%

b) 12%
c) 18%
d) 15%
e) None of these

52) A bag contains 12 blue balls and total of 8 yellow and pink balls. The probability of taking one yellow ball is ¼. Find the probability of taking two balls, both is pink?

  1. a) 5/191
  2. b) 13/190
  3. c) 17/190
  4. d) 23/190
  5. e) None of these

53) In a class 45 students boys and girls are in the ratio of 5: 4. The average age of boys is 36 years and a girl is 22.5 years. Find the average age of the class

  1. a) 24 yrs
  2. b) 28 yrs
  3. c) 25 yrs
  4. d) 16 yrs
  5. e) 30 yrs

54) Hari sells an article at 20% profit. If he had bought it 20% less and sold it for Rs.40 more, he would have gained 75%. Find the cost price of an article?

  1. a) Rs.240
  2. b) Rs.200
  3. c) Rs.250
  4. d) Rs.280
  5. e) Rs.180

55) 20 women can do a piece of work in 12 days. If 20 women started working after 3 more days some women joined to complete the remaining work in 6 days. How many women joined after 3 days of the work started?

  1. a) 12
  2. b) 6
  3. c) 18
  4. d) 10
  5. e) 15

 

Question Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018 : English (8th Dec 2018 – Shift 1)

  • Reading Comprehension Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims Shift 1 (8th December 2018)
  • Direction (1-8): Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

     

    Typical insurance company costs include designing insurance products to suit customer needs; actuarial input to assess and manage risk; advertising and marketing; empanelment (of approved service providers such as hospitals); administrative expenses to provide prior approval of claims; and processing, which includes functions such as fraud detection.

    However, of these, the first three are not applicable to programmes such as Ayushman Bharat which will be fully funded by the government as a blanket scheme. The government is also funding more than 80% of crop insurance. The last three functions, i.e. empanelling service providers, pre-approving hospitalisation of patients and subsequently settling the claim, are commonly outsourced to third-party administrators (TPAs) even by insurance companies.

    No insurance company has the kind of financial resources the Centre and the States have. Hence, governments must consider bearing the risk by themselves — known as the “trust mode” — instead of using insurance companies as risk-bearers and intermediaries. However, in India, governments continue to pay hefty sums in premium to insurance companies.

    This phenomenon was researched in 2015 by Srikant Nagulapalli and Sudarsana Rao Rokkam of the Andhra Pradesh University. Studying the Aarogyasri scheme introduced in undivided Andhra Pradesh by the late Congress Chief Minister, Y.S. Rajasekhar Reddy (the forerunner of the RSBY), they showed that the bid by insurance companies on such health schemes included a 20% margin for administrative expense and profit. By avoiding insurance companies and using TPAs

    instead, governments can save about 15%, or up to ₹6,000 crore per year. These savings will continue to rise due to rising premiums. Additionally, since premiums paid to insurance companies are transferred at the beginning of the year, there is an opportunity cost, which at current interest rates could amount to around ₹2,000 crore a year. The study also found the claim-to-premium ratio and customer satisfaction to be better in the trust mode than the insurance mode. It would also prevent exorbitant profits accruing to insurance companies in good cropping seasons as in 2017-18.

    Those who recommend the use of insurance companies allude that the government lacks the expertise to manage insurance. While the “government has no business being in business” is the neoliberal mantra, insurance companies are a redundant layer in the government’s social security structure. The government has already proclaimed that it wishes to cut the intermediary through the JAM trinity (Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile) and direct benefit transfers. It has also indicated that it wants to optimize fund utilization through the recently introduced Public Finance Management System. Shifting to the trust mode will be the next natural step in this path, not only saving taxpayer money but also benefiting farmers and the underprivileged instead of insurance companies.

    1) Which of the following combination of the costs is applicable to third party administrators?

    1. Designing insurance products to suit customer needs.
    2. Empanelling service providers.

    iii. Pre-approving hospitalisation of patients.

    1. Actuarial input to assess and manage risk.
    2. a) i and ii
    3. b) ii and iii
    4. c) i and iii
    5. d) i and iv
    6. e) ii and iv

    2) Writer has emphasized on the delivery of social security schemes by the government instead of insurance companies. Which of the following facts support writer’s idea?

    1. insurance companies themselves outsource some of the work to third party, if government use TPAs instead, it can save about 15% per year.
    2. As the social security schemes like ayushman bharat are fully funded by the government, so government should take care of it completely.

    iii. The claim ­to­ premium ratio and customer satisfaction to be better in the trust mode than the insurance mode.

    1. a) All except i
    2. b) ii and iii
    3. c) All except ii
    4. d) All are true
    5. e) None of these

    3) As per the passage, which among the following is the earliest introduced social security scheme?

    1. a) Pradhanmantri fasal bima yojana
    2. b) Ayushman Bharat
    3. c) Aarogyasri scheme
    4. d) JAM trinity
    5. e) Rashtriya swasthya bima yojana

    4) Which of the following is the prime focus of the above passage?

    1. a) The insurance companies should not consider social security scheme as a profit-earning tool
    2. b) Seeing the exorbitant return in insurance sector government must initiate its own public sector insurance company and make the market more competitive
    3. c) Government pays high premium to insurance companies, which outsource some of its areas to third party administrator. So distributing these schemes by itself, through trust mode, government can save a huge amount yearly
    4. d) Government should cut the intermediary through the JAM trinity
    5. e) None of these

    5) There is a phrase “government has no business being in business” used in the passage. What can be illustrated from the phrase?

    1. a) Public sector companies are not much profitable
    2. b) Government do not have its own insurance company due to lack of business understanding
    3. c) The primary function of the government in any country is to formulate rules and policies that are coherent with its constitution and overseeing their implementation
    4. d) Due to lack of sense of ownership in the management, government employees do not consider public sector businesses as their own
    5. e) None of these

    6) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word “accruing” printed in bold as used in the passage.

    1. a) Jobless
    2. b) Fired
    3. c) Whacking
    4. d) Accumulating
    5. e) Terrible

    7) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word “allude” printed in bold as used in the passage.

    1. a) Assert
    2. b) Advice
    3. c) Indicate
    4. d) Allege
    5. e) Illegitimate

    8) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word “redundant” printed in bold as used in the passage.

    1. a) Ensnare
    2. b) Naysaying
    3. c) Advances
    4. d) Terminated
    5. e) Vital
  • Cloze Test Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims Shift 1 (8th December 2018)
  • Error Spotting Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims Shift 1 (8th December 2018)

Directions (19-23): There is a sentence given below which is divided into four or five parts. There is an error in any part(s) of the sentence. From the given options, find out the part which contain(s) error.

 

19) A smart and green building, SRR4 are the second building (A) / in India to be constructed with the innovative. (B) / ‘One Storey High Technology,’ with each floor (C) /being built on the ground, then lifted (D) /and attached to the top of the building (E) /

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

20) The report should include State-wide status of all gram panchayats, (A) / details of all non-operational gram panchayats, duration and reason of faults (B) /as well as corrective action and time taken to repair and additionally, (C) /Mr. Sundararajan has instruct that all non-operational gram panchayats are to be made operational in 48 hours, (D) / and disciplinary action would be initiated against officers in case fault rectification is delayed.  (E) /

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

21) The directions came while the green panel (A) / was hearing  a plea move(B) / by petitioner Saloni Ailawadi and others, (C) / who sought a ban of the sale of Volkswagen vehicles, (D) / alleging violation of emission norms.  (E) /

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

22) A bench headed by NGT Chairperson Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel  (A) / further constituted a committee comprising representatives (B) / of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, (C) / Ministry of Heavy Industries, Central Pollution Control Board and the Automotive Research Association of India (D) /, to estimate the quantum of environmental loss. (E) /

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) C
  4. d) D
  5. e) E

Directions (23-25): In each of the following questions one phrase has been given and it has been followed by four sentences. You have to find out on which sentences phrase has been used properly according to its meaning and mark your answer from the options denoted a), b), c), d). Mark e) as your answer if you find that the phrase has been applied properly in all sentences.

23) Put off

  1. i) Never put off till tomorrow what you can do today.
  2. ii) Put off some music to liven things up.

iii) Women who put off having a baby often make the best mothers.

  1. iv) We need a stronger drill to put off this wall.
  2. a) All except iv
  3. b) i and ii
  4. c) ii and iv
  5. d) i and iii
  6. e) All are correct

24) Break up

  1. i) Don’t let a little dispute break up a great friendship.
  2. ii) The lawyer requested a break up the court case, but the judge objected.

iii) Police used tear gas to break up a demonstration.

  1. iv) Finally there was a break up the rain and we went out.
  2. a) ii and iv
  3. b) i and iii
  4. c) i and ii
  5. d) All except iv
  6. e) All are correct

25) Put on

  1. i) When people put on uniforms, their attitude becomes more confident.
  2. ii) A downpour of rain put on the children’s bonfire.

iii) Firefighters have been called to put on the fire in the city centre.

  1. iv) She combed her hair and put on some lipstick.
  2. a) ii and iii
  3. b) i and iv
  4. c) iii and iv
  5. d) i and ii

e) All are correct

  • Sentence Rearrangement asked in IBPS Clerk

Directions (9-13): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

 

  1. A) In his order dated November 2, Information Commissioner M. Sridhar Acharyulu has come down heavily on the RBI and its chief for failing to uphold the interest of the public at large.
  2. B) The Central Information Commission (CIC) has directed RBI Governor Urjit Patel to show cause
  3. C) Why maximum penalty should not be imposed
  4. D) The Reserve Bank of India finds itself in the midst of another tangle
  5. E) on him for” the central bank’s ostensible “defiance” of Supreme Court orders on disclosing the names of wilful defaulters on bank loans worth hundreds of crores of rupees.

9) Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement? 

  1. a) D
  2. b) E
  3. c) C
  4. d) B
  5. e) A

10) Which of the following sentences should be the FOURTH after rearrangement? 

  1. a) B
  2. b) D
  3. c) E
  4. d) A
  5. e) C

11) Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after rearrangement? 

  1. a) A
  2. b) B
  3. c) D
  4. d) C
  5. e) E

12) Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement? 

  1. a) E
  2. b) D
  3. c) B
  4. d) C
  5. e) A

13) Which of the following sentences should be the SECOND after rearrangement? 

  1. a) B
  2. b) E
  3. c) D
  4. d) C
  5. e) A
  6. c) Stressed
  7. d) Vision
  8. e) Interrupt

17) As dawn breaks, Parambikulam Tiger Reserve, one of India’s protected forest areas, ___________ a garden with dream flowers floating all over.

  1. a) Converted
  2. b) Adapted
  3. c) Turns
  4. d) Improved
  5. e) Placed

18) The ___________ of a rare bird species in the Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary has sparked much interest among Ornithologists.

  1. a) Sighting
  2. b) Killing
  3. c) Lost
  4. d) Fights
  5. e) Visitors

Question Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018 : Reasoning (8th Dec 2018 – Shift 1)

  • Floor Puzzle – 8th December 2018 ( IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018)

Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F, G have holidays starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. B has a holiday on Wednesday. Three people have a holiday between B and A, C has immediately before D, E has immediately before F, No one sits between A and D.

71) Among the six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F; C is taller than at least three people. B is taller than E.D is not the shortest person but shorter than F.E is taller than C. Then who is shortest person in the group?

  1. a) F
  2. b) C
  3. c) Cannot be determined
  4. d) A
  5. e) E

Directions (72-76): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons-Aravinth, Shyam, Ajith, Vijay, Nirmal, Abi, Akil and Chandru are sitting around the square table in such a way that four of them sits at four corners of the table while the remaining four are sits in the middle of each of the four sides. Those who sit at the corners face the outside while the rest are facing centre.

Chandru sits second to the right of Abi. Abi sits one of the middle of the table. As many person sits between Chandru and Ajith is the same as the number of person sits between Chandru and Nirmal. Ajith and Nirmal is not an immediate neighbour of Chandru. Aravinth sits at the one of the corner of the table. Shyam sits second to the right of Aravinth. Akil is not an immediate neighbour of Nirmal.

72)What is the position of Akil with respect to the one who sits immediate right of Chandru?

  1. a) Immediate left
  2. b) Immediate right
  3. c) Second to the left
  4. d) Second to the right
  5. e) None of these

73) Four of the following five are alike in certain way and thus form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

  1. a) Shyam
  2. b) Nirmal
  3. c) Ajith
  4. d) Aravinth
  5. e) Vijay

74) What is the position of Vijay with respect to the one who sits second to the right of Chandru?

  1. a) Second to the left
  2. b) Third to the right
  3. c) Second to the right
  4. d) Third to the left
  5. e) None of these

75) How many persons sit between Abi and Akil?

  1. a) One
  2. b) Two
  3. c) Three
  4. d) No one
  5. e) None of these

76) Which of the following statement is true?

  1. a) Only one person sits between Ajith and Akil
  2. b) Chandru sits to the immediate left of Aravinth
  3. c) Shyam is an immediate neighbour of Nirmal and Chandru
  4. d) Nirmal sits third to the right of Aravinth
  5. e) None of the statement is true

Direction (77-81): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

CAR  SUM  NOT  VAN  MET  LOP 

 77). If the letter ‘T’ is added at the last of each words, then how many of them will make a meaningful words?

  1. a) None
  2. b) One
  3. c) Two
  4. d) Three
  5. e) More than three

78). If all the letters in the words are arranged from left to right as in the English alphabetical order within the word. Then, how many words remain unchanged?

  1. a) None
  2. b) One
  3. c) Two
  4. d) Three
  5. e) Four

79) If all the words are arranged from right to left as in the English dictionary order. Then, which of the following word is fourth from the left end?

  1. a) MET
  2. b) SUM
  3. c) LOP
  4. d) NOT
  5. e) CAR

80). How many letters are there in between the third letter of the fourth word from the right end and first letter of the fifth word from the left end?

  1. a) Three
  2. b) Four
  3. c) Seven
  4. d) Five
  5. e) Six

 81). If the first letter of the words are changed to previous letter and the last letter in the words are changed to next letter of the English alphabet series. Then which of the following words are making meaningful word?

  1. a) NOT
  2. b) Both VAN and LOP
  3. c) SUM
  4. d) VAN
  5. e) LOP

Direction (82-83): Study the given information carefully and the answer the following question below.

Point B is 6m to north of point C and 8m to the east of point A. Point D is 4m to the north of point E and 8m to the west of point C. Point F is 4m to the East of point E.

82) If Point G is lies exactly between A and B, then what is the distance between G and F?

  1. a) 5m
  2. b) 6m
  3. c) 10m
  4. d) 4m
  5. e) None of these

83) What is the position of A with respect to F?

  1. a) North East
  2. b) South West
  3. c) South East
  4. d) East
  5. e) None of these

Direction (84-88): study the given information carefully and the answer the following question below.

A certain number of people sitting in a South facing row. Only some people arrangements are known.

Only one person sits between I and M. L sits fourth to the left of I. Five person sits between L and V. Four people sit between V and Q. Not more than six people sits to the right of V. Number of person sits between I and Q is as same as between number of person sits between M and T. M sits right of T. Three people sit between T and W. W sits adjacent to L.

84) If B sits Exactly between V and I, then what is the position of L with respect to B?

  1. a) Second to the left
  2. b) Fifth to the left
  3. c) Fourth to the right
  4. d) Fifth to the right
  5. e) None of these

85) Who sits third to the right of W?

  1. a) None of them sits third to right of W
  2. b) M
  3. c) I
  4. d) L
  5. e) T

 86) How many persons are sitting in a row?

  1. a) 16
  2. b) 20
  3. c) 18
  4. d) 17
  5. e) None of these

87) Four of the five among the following are similar in such a way to form a group, which one of the following doesn’t belongs to the group?

  1. a) T
  2. b) M
  3. c) L
  4. d) W
  5. e) V

 88) Who among the following sits at the extreme ends of the row?

  1. a) M
  2. b) L
  3. c) I
  4. d) W
  5. e) None of these

Direction (89-93): study the given information carefully and the answer the following question below.

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, and F were promoted on seven different days of the week starting from Sunday to Saturday.

D was promoted before Wednesday. One person was promoted between D and B. Three people were promoted between B and G. F was not promoted just after or just before G. Two persons were promoted between F and C. F was promoted before C. A was not promoted after B.

89) When was A promoted?

  1. a) Sunday
  2. b) Monday
  3. c) Wednesday
  4. d) Thursday
  5. e) None of those given as option

90) Who was promoted just after E?

  1. a) A0
  2. b) B
  3. c) F
  4. d) C
  5. e) None of those given as option

91) Number of person promoted before F is one less than number of person promoted after_______?

  1. a) D
  2. b) B
  3. c) A
  4. d) C
  5. e) None of those given as option

92) If all the persons are promoted from Sunday to Saturday in alphabetical order, then how many persons remains unchanged from his position ?

  1. a) 1
  2. b) 2
  3. c) None
  4. d) 3
  5. e) More than three

93) If G is related to A, in the same way A is related to D, the who among them B is related to ?

  1. a) E
  2. b) F
  3. c) C
  4. d) G
  5. e) None of these

Directions (94-98): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight person A, K, N , H, G, S, T and I were born on two different dates 15th and 25th of a four different month viz., March, April, May and June but not necessarily in the same order.

S was born on 25th of the month which does not have 31 days. Two people were born between S and A. Five persons were born between T and K. K was not born on March. Number of person born after I is as same as number of person born before G. N was born just after I. I and H were born in the same month.

94) Who among the following was born in May month?

  1. a) H
  2. b) A
  3. c) I
  4. d) T
  5. e) Both (a) and (c)

95) How many people was born after I?

  1. a) One
  2. b) Two
  3. c) Three
  4. d) More than Three
  5. e) None

96) Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. a) A was born on May
  2. b) N was born on 15th of May
  3. c) S was born on Just after H
  4. d) T was born on April
  5. e) None of these

97) Which of the following statement is correct regarding H?

  1. a) Three person were born between H and K
  2. b) Four person were born between A and H
  3. c) H was born on the month which doesn’t have 30days

d)A was born after H

  1. e) Both (a) and (c)

98) In which of the following day and month was N born?

  1. a) None of these
  2. b) May 15th
  3. c) July 15th
  4. d) March 15th

e)June 25th

99) Find the Next element in the series

C4E H9J O16Q ____

  1. a) X25Z
  2. b) W25X
  3. c) T25S
  4. d) U25V
  5. e) None of these

100) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “EMPHASIZE” each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet series (Both forward and backward)?

  1. a) One
  2. b) Two
  3. c) Three
  4. d) Four
  5. e) None of these
  • Square Seating Arrangement Puzzle – 8th December 2018 ( IBPS Clerk Prelims 2018)

Eight person’s A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H sited on a square shaped table with four sitting at corners and facing inside while those sitting at center facing outside, B faces center and C is third to the right of B. Three people sitting between D and E, A is second to the left of D, H is immediate left of D. Two person sits between E and F.

  • Syllogism Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims

Statement:

All Bikes are Car

Some Car are Truck

Conclusion:

(1) Some Bike are Truck

(2) No Truck is Car

Statement:

Some Toffee are eclairs

All eclairs are dairy-milk.

Some dairy-milk are chocobar

Conclusion:

1) atleast some are dairy-milk.

(2) No Toffee is chocobar

Statement:

Some box are Table

No table is board.

Some board are wall.

Conclusion –

1) Some board are box

2) No box is board

Directions (66-70): In each of the following questions some statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

 66) Statements:

All Queen are Beautiful

Some Queen are Child

No Beautiful is Royal

Conclusions:

  1. Some Child is not Royal
  2. Some Child is Beautiful
  3. a) Only conclusion II follows
  4. b) Both conclusion I and II follows
  5. c) Either conclusion I or II follows
  6. d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  7. e) Only conclusion I follow

 67) Statements:

All Ring is Wing

Some Wing is King

No King is Brave

Conclusions:

  1. Some Ring is Brave
  2. II. No Ring is Brave
  3. a) Either conclusion I or II follows
  4. b) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  5. c) Both conclusion I and II follows
  6. d) Only conclusion I follow
  7. e) Only conclusion II follows

 68) Statements:

No Triangle is Rectangle

All Rectangle is Circle

No Square is Circle

Conclusions:

  1. Some Square is Triangle
  2. Some Rectangle is Square
  3. a) Either conclusion I or II follows
  4. b) Only conclusion I follow
  5. c) Both conclusion I and II follows
  6. d) Only conclusion II follows
  7. e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

69). Statements:

All paint are brush

No brush is a colour

All wall are colour

Conclusions:

  1. Some paint can be wall
  2. No colour is paint
  3. a) Either conclusion I or II follows
  4. b) Only conclusion I follow
  5. c) Both conclusion I and II follows
  6. d) Only conclusion II follows
  7. e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

70) Statements:

All birds are animals

No birds is a human

Some human are mammals

Conclusions:

  1. Some mammals are not birds
  2. All human are animals
  3. a) Either conclusion I or II follows
  4. b) Only conclusion I follow
  5. c) Both conclusion I and II follows
  6. d) Only conclusion II follows
  7. e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • Direction and Distance QuestionsE is 10 KM to the west of I. C is 5 KM to the south of E. A is 15 km to the east of C. F is 10 km to the west of H. B is 5 km to the west of A. H is 5km to the north of E. D is 15 km to the west of C. G os 5 km to the west of F.Q1.  What is the direction of G with respect to A?

    Q2. B is in which direction with respect to C and at what distance?

IBPS Clerk Exam Analysis, Question Asked, Expected Cutoff Marks 2018

IBPS Clerk Exam Analysis All Shifts Click Here
Questions Asked in IBPS Clerk Prelims All Shifts Click Here
IBPS Clerk Prelims Expected Cut Off Marks 2018 (State-wise) Click Here
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